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Narcolepsy

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Question: Since narcolepsy is genetic, could it be caused by a mutated recessive mitochondrial DNA gene? Even though Men don't pass on mitochondrial DNA(mtDNA), and only females do; both sexes are still inherited the gene. As a female, if both your parents don't currently have narcolepsy; could it be that it is a recessive gene inherited from the mitochrondrial DNA? Also my grandparents don't have narcolepsy however, it has been diagnosed as being genetic.... what's a good explanation for that?

Answer: Since you inherit your mother's mitochondrial DNA, and it's the same in all her body thus all the same in your body, if it were mutated, I don't think it would be considered recessive. I think it would be dominant and would be in all of the female's children because all would inherit her defective mitochondrial DNA. If a gene is recessive, you have to have 2 defective copies of it (for chromosomal genes) or if it is on the X chromosome and you are male (because males only have one copy of the X chromosome). On wikipedia it says that narcolepsy might be linked to an area on chromosome 6 that includes a gene called HLA.


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